FREE PDF USEFUL COMPTIA - PT0-003 LATEST BRAINDUMPS EBOOK

Free PDF Useful CompTIA - PT0-003 Latest Braindumps Ebook

Free PDF Useful CompTIA - PT0-003 Latest Braindumps Ebook

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CompTIA PenTest+ Exam Sample Questions (Q83-Q88):

NEW QUESTION # 83
A penetration tester is evaluating a SCADA system. The tester receives local access to a workstation that is running a single application. While navigating through the application, the tester opens a terminal window and gains access to the underlying operating system. Which of the following attacks is the tester performing?

  • A. Library injection
  • B. Kiosk escape
  • C. Arbitrary code execution
  • D. Process hollowing

Answer: B

Explanation:
A kiosk escape involves breaking out of a restricted environment, such as a kiosk or a single application interface, to access the underlying operating system. Here's why option A is correct:
Kiosk Escape: This attack targets environments where user access is intentionally limited, such as a kiosk or a dedicated application. The goal is to break out of these restrictions and gain access to the full operating system.
Arbitrary Code Execution: This involves running unauthorized code on the system, but the scenario described is more about escaping a restricted environment.
Process Hollowing: This technique involves injecting code into a legitimate process, making it appear benign while executing malicious activities.
Library Injection: This involves injecting malicious code into a running process by loading a malicious library, which is not the focus in this scenario.
Reference from Pentest:
Forge HTB: Demonstrates techniques to escape restricted environments and gain broader access to the system.
Horizontall HTB: Shows methods to break out of limited access environments, aligning with the concept of kiosk escape.
Conclusion:
Option A, Kiosk escape, accurately describes the type of attack where a tester breaks out of a restricted environment to access the underlying operating system.


NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following is most important when communicating the need for vulnerability remediation to a client at the conclusion of a penetration test?

  • A. Articulation of impact
  • B. Articulation of alignment
  • C. Articulation of escalation
  • D. Articulation of cause

Answer: A

Explanation:
When concluding a penetration test, effectively communicating the need for vulnerability remediation is crucial. Here's why the articulation of impact is the most important aspect:
Articulation of Cause (Option A):
Importance: While understanding the cause is essential for long-term remediation and prevention, it does not directly convey the urgency or potential consequences of the vulnerabilities.
Articulation of Impact (Option B):
Importance: The impact provides the client with a clear understanding of the severity and urgency of the issues. It helps prioritize remediation efforts based on the potential damage that could be inflicted if the vulnerabilities are exploited.
Importance: While escalation paths are important to understand, they are part of the broader impact assessment. They explain how an attacker might exploit the vulnerability further but do not convey the immediate risk as clearly as impact.
Articulation of Alignment (Option D):
Importance: Alignment is useful for ensuring that remediation efforts are in line with the client's strategic goals and regulatory requirements. However, it still doesn't highlight the immediate urgency and potential damage like the articulation of impact does.
Conclusion: Articulating the impact of vulnerabilities is the most crucial element when communicating the need for remediation. By clearly explaining the potential risks and consequences, penetration testers can effectively convey the urgency and importance of addressing the discovered issues, thus motivating clients to take prompt and appropriate action.
Reference:
Articulation of Escalation (Option C):


NEW QUESTION # 85
A penetration tester runs the following command:
l.comptia.local axfr comptia.local
which of the following types of information would be provided?

  • A. The DNSSEC certificate and CA
  • B. The hostnames and IP addresses of internal systems
  • C. The OS and version of the DNS server
  • D. The DHCP scopes and ranges used on the network

Answer: B

Explanation:
The command dig @ns1.comptia.local axfr comptia.local is a command that performs a DNS zone transfer, which is a process of copying the entire DNS database or zone file from a primary DNS server to a secondary DNS server. A DNS zone file contains records that map domain names to IP addresses and other information, such as mail servers, name servers, or aliases. A DNS zone transfer can provide useful information for enumeration, such as the hostnames and IP addresses of internal systems, which can help identify potential targets or vulnerabilities. A DNS zone transfer can be performed by using tools such as dig, which is a tool that can query DNS servers and obtain information about domain names, such as IP addresses, mail servers, name servers, or other records1. The other options are not types of information that would be provided by a DNS zone transfer. The DNSSEC certificate and CA are not part of the DNS zone file, but rather part of the DNSSEC protocol, which is an extension of the DNS protocol that provides authentication and integrity for DNS data. The DHCP scopes and ranges used on the network are not part of the DNS zone file, but rather part of the DHCP protocol, which is a protocol that assigns dynamic IP addresses and other configuration parameters to devices on a network. The OS and version of the DNS server are not part of the DNS zone file, but rather part of the OS fingerprinting technique, which is a technique that identifies the OS and version of a remote system by analyzing its responses to network probes.


NEW QUESTION # 86
Deconfliction is necessary when the penetration test:

  • A. proceeds in parallel with a criminal digital forensic investigation.
  • B. occurs during the monthly vulnerability scanning.
  • C. uncovers indicators of prior compromise over the course of the assessment.
  • D. determines that proprietary information is being stored in cleartext.

Answer: C

Explanation:
This will then enable the PenTest to continue so that additional issues can be found, exploited, and analyzed.


NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following describes the process of determining why a vulnerability scanner is not providing results?

  • A. Goal reprioritization
  • B. Secure distribution
  • C. Root cause analysis
  • D. Peer review

Answer: C

Explanation:
Root cause analysis involves identifying the underlying reasons why a problem is occurring. In the context of a vulnerability scanner not providing results, performing a root cause analysis would help determine why the scanner is failing to deliver the expected output. Here's why option A is correct:
Root Cause Analysis: This is a systematic process used to identify the fundamental reasons for a problem. It involves investigating various potential causes and pinpointing the exact issue that is preventing the vulnerability scanner from working correctly.
Secure Distribution: This refers to the secure delivery and distribution of software or updates, which is not relevant to troubleshooting a vulnerability scanner.
Peer Review: This involves evaluating work by others in the same field to ensure quality and accuracy, but it is not directly related to identifying why a tool is malfunctioning.
Goal Reprioritization: This involves changing the priorities of goals within a project, which does not address the technical issue of the scanner not working.
Reference from Pentest:
Horizontall HTB: Demonstrates the process of troubleshooting and identifying issues with tools and their configurations to ensure they work correctly.
Writeup HTB: Emphasizes the importance of thorough analysis to understand why certain security tools may fail during an assessment.


NEW QUESTION # 88
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